Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I think that being gay is wrong, but I treat gay people respectfully like any other person. Is it homophobic? Or offensive in any kind of way? Aren’t disagreement and discrimination two different things?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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